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Home→Protestant authors→Christian Zionism And The Freemason Deception – Part I: Christian Zionism and the Freemason Deception

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Christian Zionism And The Freemason Deception – Part I: Christian Zionism and the Freemason Deception — 13 Comments

  1. Thanks, James, for your answer.

    But the new covenant cannot be applied to first ‘half of the week’, the 3.5 years of Jesus’ ministery in your interpretation (if they indeed were 3.5 years – I think they were 2.5 years). The new covenant was established by Jesus in the night before his sufferings. The covenant was introduced by his blood, like the first covenant was dedicated by blood (Heb.9:18-22). The testament went into effect once Christ had died (Heb.9:15-17). Only then was the veil in the temple torn from top to bottom (Mt.27:51).

    Therefore the first half of ‘the week’ still belonged to the old covenant, wich was put aside at the death of Christ, as you yourself explained above. Therefore the text of Daniel 9:27 cannot be applied to the work of Jesus or to the first century AD.

    But there are many more questions one should ask while pondering about the meaning of Daniel 9:27. A second question:

    If one wants to apply Daniel 9:27 to the first century, one has to assume that verse 27 is a repetition of verse 26.

    There are indeed cases of repetition in other parts of Daniel. For instance in Daniel 7. There we see ‘the three horns felled to stumps’ three times: In Daniel 7:8, 20 and 24. We see repetition also in Daniel 8.

    But in all of these cases of repetition, it is indicated by Daniel. He is telling his dream to a heavenly messenger (first repetition) and then follows the explanation of the heavenly messenger (second repetition) and the meaning becomes clearer.

    The question one should ask about Daniel 9:27 is: Do we see an indication of any repetition in Daniel 9:26, 27? And if not, why do we still think it to be a repetition – what other reason can there be? In the text – without depending on any theological framework to which we want to uphold.

    • Hi Peter, perhaps you can clarify some difficulties I have in your very interesting point of view. Do you believe that there is a gap between the 69th and 70th week of Daniel’s 70 weeks? I am not sure where in those 70 weeks, according to your framework of events, that Christ died.

      Also, it seems to me that the covenant was made by God’s promise to Abraham 430 years before the law was given to Moses, and that Christ came, first to confirm that covenant (strengthen and bring to the fore) and then to establish it in the midst of the week by his death. Once the covenant is established by his death, it does not mean that the confirming of it ceases.

      So I have three questions:
      Do you believe there is a gap between the 69th week and the 70th as dispensationalists generally do?
      Is there a difference between confirming the covenant and establishing the covenant?
      Where in the 70 weeks of Daniel did Christ die?

      • Hi Ron,

        In answer to your questions:
        1. Yes I believe in an enormous gap between week 69 and week 70. I now believe the gap to be 1996 years.
        2. Yes I believe the establishing comes first and the confirming comes later, once it is established. One cannot confirm a covenant that is not yet established.
        3. I believe Christ died about 2.5 years after the ending of week 69 – as is indicated in Daniel 9:25, 26
        – 7 weeks and 62 weeks until Messiah a Prince – and after 62 weeks (that would start after the first 7 weeks) Messiah shall be cut off…

        See more in this Interlinear:
        https://scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/OTpdf/dan9.pdf

        • Hi Peter,

          I thank you for your concise answer. It is helping me to try to think more clearly. It has always been my understanding that the covenant which Christ confirmed was the covenant that God made with Abraham which entailed promises concerning Abraham’s seed, which seed was Christ.

          I think I misspoke by saying the covenant was established by Christ’s death.

          The covenant had already been established by God with Abraham, and like Paul says, the law of Moses, which came 430 years after, could not disannul it. God confirmed this covenant with an oath, not only to Abraham but also to David. The covenant Christ was confirming was not the covenant given to Moses, but the covenant given to Abraham.

          In my view, when Christ died on the cross for our sins, and opened the way of salvation and grace for those who believe in him, he was not establishing the covenant, but fulfilling the promises of that covenant which God had already made and established with an oath to Abraham long ago.

          I am still struggling with the gap between the 69th and 70th week. Does that mean that Christ’s death on the cross has no place in the 70 weeks of Daniel’s prophecy?

      • Thanks for replying, James. But if Jesus’ ministry was the bringing of the new covenant, did this covenant then last only 7 years and did it end after the horrific stoning of Stehpan, the most outrageous act of hatred against ‘the new covenant’ that Jesus had come to bring them? That does not correspond with the way the new covenant is defined in both the Old and the New Testament:

        ‘8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:

        9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord.

        10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:

        11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.

        (Jeremiah 31:31-34, Hebrews 8:8-12)

        If the 70th week ends with the realization of this very definition of the new covenant, given by the Lord Himself, a covenant ‘with the house of Israel’, the people that Daniel belonged to (Daniel 9:24), then we have to say that the 70th week is still future – or at least, that the 70th week hasn’t ended yet (I believe the 70th week has already started). It might be that the objectives of the 70 weeks that are stated in verse 24 of Daniel 9 are all related to the ‘new covenant’.

        The new covenant ends with: ‘for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more’ (Jer.31:34). Doesn’t that look an awful lot like some of the things mentioned in Daniel 9:24?

      • Thanks for replying, James. But if Jesus’ ministry was the bringing of the new covenant, did this covenant then last only 7 years and did it end after the horrific stoning of Stehpan, the most outrageous act of hatred against ‘the new covenant’ that Jesus had come to bring them? That does not correspond with the way the new covenant is defined in both the Old and the New Testament:

        ‘8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:

        9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord.

        10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:

        11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.

        (Jeremiah 31:31-34, Hebrews 8:8-12)

        If the 70th week ends with the realization of this very definition of the new covenant, given by the Lord Himself, a covenant ‘with the house of Israel’, the people that Daniel belonged to (Daniel 9:24), then we have to say that the 70th week is still future – or at least, that the 70th week hasn’t ended yet (I believe the 70th week has already started). It might be that the objectives of the 70 weeks that are stated in verse 24 of Daniel 9 are all related to the ‘new covenant’.

        The new covenant ends with: ‘for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more’ (Jer.31:34). Doesn’t that look an awful lot like some of the things mentioned in Daniel 9:24?

        • Yes, Peter, the confirmation of the Covenant of salvation by grace through faith in Christ by preaching the Gospel to the house of Israel lasted 7 years from the start of Jesus’ ministry up to the horrific stoning of Stephen. It was “to the Jew first” as Paul wrote. And Jesus said in Matthew 15:24: “But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.” After the Week of 7 years, God raised up the Apostle Paul to take the Covenant of grace through faith in Christ to the Gentiles. This is irrefutable history. I do NOT agree that it does not correspond with the way the new covenant is defined in both the Old and the New Testament. It EXACTLY corresponds with it. I advise you to study the history behind your false doctrine of a gap in time between the 69th and 70th Week. It started with a Roman Catholic Jesuit priest named Francesco Ribera circa 1590. Just look that guy up!

  2. Hello James,

    I was unable to respond to our discussion under the page on Kent Hovind. Therefore I took the freedom to reply to you here.

    As I see things, the approach of bible texts should be based solely on the scriptures of the bible and not on any general theological frameworks. All of those constructs are works by shortcoming man, be it Darby, Scofield or any other writer. We are called not be followers of men but we are called to be followers of Christ and Christ alone (1 Cor.1:10-13). If I were you, I would remove all pages with agreements or disagreements with theological ideas of men. As for me, dozens of ‘Christian books’ on my shelves have found their way to the fire – because they were rotten to the core. The books of Darby and Scofield however were not among them. Not that it matters much. The books that remained on my shelves are seldomly looked into – if ever. I only read the bible and ask the Father to guide me while I ponder over verses, texts and connections between them.

    And I must say that on many things have I corrected my previous beliefs. I went from pretrib to midtrib – no longer believing in a 7-yr tribulation for the whole world – ony for God’s people – slowly moving toward the whole world in the last 3.5 years. I went from Jews in Israel to Palestinians as the people of the most High. I went from an abomination in a third temple to an abomination in the Al Aqsa. I went from one attack on the holy land in the Endtime to four attacks on the holy land in the Endtime (the Nakba of 1948 being the first). I went from the white horse as antichrist deception to the white horse as victory of God’s people, the Palestinians. I went from Revelation 13:1 starting at the last 7 years to Revelation 13:1 starting at 1776. I went from Revelation 17:16 at the start of the last 3.5 years to Revelation 17:16 at 1789.

    As for masonry and zionism. They are both systems of the dragon, called the satan and the devil, that old snake. Both the USA and Israel have been founded by masons. Almost all of its leaders have been masons. So we shouldn’t be amazed at the multitude of lies, (mass-) murders and assassinations committed by both these regimes. These instruments of the devil are pictured in Revelation 13 as the beast out of the sea and the beast out of the earth, as I have tried to show in these video’s:
    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4UtNYM_P-Fo&t=702s
    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Rr9DYVj1olg&t=222s

    I never saw any convincing evidence of connections between Darby and Scofield on the one hand and freemasonry on the other. However I am apt to believe that the construct of ‘dispensationalism’, which I have found to be biblical (see below), would be used by the devil to disguise his instruments, be it evangelical ‘Christianity’ in the US and Europe or Zionism. They are both filled with false prophets, for which the Lord warned us the most in his Endtime discourse of Mathew 24. Especially Zionism has all the characteristics of a false prophet and I believe it is the false prophet of Revelation 16 and 19. The devil likes to misuse scripture to his advantage (Gen.3:1, Math 4:6) – to come as an angel of light (2 Cor.11;14). I believe Jesus has given his church an indication for this in Revelation 3:9. To my understanding, the church phase of Philadelpia ran from about 1700 to about 1900, the period during which Zionism arose. However Zionism only became big since the Balfour declaration of 1917, during the church phase of Laodicea that followed Philadelphia and has largely infiltrated what was left of Philadelphia, completely corrupting it.

    Turning to the more instructive things: the bible itself speaks about dispensations so why shouldn’t we? Paul speaks of ‘the dispensation of the fulness of times’ (Eph.1:10) and about ‘the dispensation of the grace of God’ (Eph.3:2). Looking at the account of history in the bible, we see God act very differently in different era’s. Before the flood there was no government, people lived up to almost 1000 years and the eating of flesh was prohibited. After the flood human government was instituted, people only got to live up to an age of max 120 years and the eating of flesh was allowed. Profound differences can be also be seen between the era till Abraham and thereafter, the era till the giving of the law and thereafter, the era till the first coming of Christ and thereafter. Why wouldn’t there be room for any other ‘dispensation’? The bible alone can make clear to us whether another dispensation is yet to come. And it does so abundantly. Only when looking at the NT, we find a future dispensation in Mathew 12:32, Acts 1:6, Acts 14:14-17, Rom.11:25-33, 1 Cor.3:14-16, Heb 6:5, Rev.20:4-6. So, why would any theological framework or the dismissal of any theological framework withhold the bible believing Christian from expecting this future age, in which Christ will reign (Eph.1:10) and see the fruits of his mighty work on the cross for a thousand years before giving authority back to the Father (1 Cor.15:27,28). If we deny the future fulfillment of prophecy, we risk to come under the accusation of 2 Timothy 2:18.

    Now, let us go again into Daniel 9:24. To my understanding, there is a difference between ‘finishing the transgression’ and ‘making an end to sins’. The first concerns the specific blasphemies and abominations against the Lord – the way the expression is used in Daniel – Daniel 8:12,13. That will have its complete fulfillment in the future abomination of desolation that will start the great tribulation – Math.24:15-22 – which will end in his second coming. This future complete fulfillment will make full the 2300 days of Daniel 8:14. The second expression in Daniel 9:24 ‘making an end to sins’, is much wider in scope.

    I believe there is much difference between ‘making an end to sins’, which is the actual stopping of sins, so that they will no longer be practised on earth, and the ‘putting away of sin’, the victory over the principle of sin that has entangled humanity since Eden. Likewise Jesus is given all power in heaven and on earth. But He is not yet executing this power. He still waits for the Father to signal Him to start this latter part of his great work, at his second coming. Or, as Hebrews 2 puts it: ‘ But now we see not yet all things put under him’ (Heb.2:8). The moment will however come that the Lamb will take away the sin of the world. The Lamb will start to do so when He will take the scroll from Him that sitteth on the throne and will start to open the seals thereof. Until then, sin still reigns on earth like a king that has been defeated an has yet to be removed from power. Therefore the man of sin is yet to be revealed (2 Thess.2:3,4). Therefore Paul calls our era ‘this present evil age’ (Gal.1:4). The same is true for satan (Heb.2:14 => Rev.20:10) and for death (2 Tim 1:10 => 1 Cor 15:26). All blessed effects of Jesus’ first coming will appear at his second coming, his ‘Parousia’. ‘Therefore Daniel 9:24 has yet to be fulfilled. Therefore Daniel 9:27 cannot be applied to the first century AD.

    I have much to say about Daniel 9:27 but first I will await you reaction.

    • Peter, first of all, a “dispensation” in the Word of God is NOT a period of time! The dictionary defines dispensation as a specific arrangement or system by which something is dispensed. Just look how that word is used in Scripture:

      1 Corinthians 9:17  For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me.
      Ephesians 1:10  That in the dispensation of the fulness of times (meaning after the Second Coming of Christ) he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him: (This means FOREVER, not a period of time.)
      Ephesians 3:2  If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:
      Colossians 1:25  Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;

      In each case, a dispensation is something given to us from God, dispensed from God. It was the heretic, John Nelson Darby, who, in the 19th century, twisted Scripture to divide history into periods of time, saying that God dealt with man differently each time. He assigned his own meaning to the word dispensation.

      About the interpretation of Daniel 9:27, I’m not going to debate with you further about it. I stand with the great men of the Protestant Reformation who were all Historicists, meaning they interpreted the books of Daniel and Revelation in the light of history! To say there is a gap of time between the 69th and 70th Week of Daniel is reading into God’s Word something that is not there. You say “the approach of bible texts should be based solely on the scriptures of the bible and not on any general theological frameworks.” But you yourself didn’t get your futurist interpretation of Daniel 9:27 solely from Scripture; you got it from some Bible teacher who had a theological framework! And so did I. I held the futurist interpretation of the 70th Week of Daniel from the time I first heard it circa 1974 until 2014, 40 years of wandering in the wilderness of mistaken interpretation of prophecy! Wow! This is the first time I realized it took me exactly 40 years to learn the truth. And I didn’t get it on my own. I read an article about the 70th Week from an historicist brother that the Holy Spirit used.

      God’s Word clearly says He gave us teachers! Ephesians 4:11,12  And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers; For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ: I have many articles about the 70th Week of Daniel which can benefit you: https://jamesjpn.net/tag/daniel-927/

      You write, “If I were you, I would remove all pages with agreements or disagreements with theological ideas of men.” That means to me you would like me to pull down a major part of my website, my work over the past 10 years! It also tells me you disregard the men of God of the Protestant Reformation whose teachings I am posting on my website. If you are an American or live in a nation that is a constitutional republic, you should learn that the very civil liberties you enjoy today were brought to you by the Reformers of the Protestant Reformation who liberated half of Europe from the tyranny of the popes of Rome.

      • Thanks, James for your quick reply to my reaction. One thing I don’t understand, that is, why wouldn’t you and I argue further on the interpretation of Daniel 9:27 – purely based on the Bible itself? Won’t we both become ‘sharper knives’ because of it, more enabled ‘to rightly divide the word of truth’? (2 Tim.2:15)

        But, first, let me reply to your answer. (1) The expression ‘dispensation of the fullness of times’ (Eph.1:10) seems to imply an element of time. (2) The era after the second coming cannot be equaled to ‘eternity’ according to 1 Cor.15:24 and Rev.20:7-21:8. Therefore this era is referred to as ‘the future age’ (Mt.12:32, Eph.1;21). Therefore, a dispensation can be related to a certain time period during which God’s dealings with creation differ from his dealings in other time periods. According to Paul there are still mutliple ‘ages to come’ (Eph.2:7)
        https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/inflections.cfm?strongs=G165&t=kjv&ot=TR&word=%CE%B1%E1%BC%B0%E1%BF%B6%CF%83%CE%B9%CE%BD

        Therefore, the concept of dispensations is completely in line with what the Bible teaches, which is also clear from the many different ages in the past, each of them characterized by different ways of the Lord God toward humanity (which I noted in my preceding reaction).

        That the ‘dispensation of the grace of God’ (Eph.3:3) also has a temporal aspect becomes clear from the context. In verses 6 and 7 we read:’…Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit that the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel…’

        Turning now to Daniel 9:27. I have many questions to ask on the interpretation of Danial 9:27 that you propose. But, in order not to disturb you, let me just ask you one:
        In one of your articles, dated August 8, 2026, you state the following:

        “He will confirm a covenant with many for one seven”. The “He” refers to the subject of the preceding sentence that is the Messiah, who was to confirm or ratify the terms of the covenant for “one seven” = seven years.
        In the middle of the “seven” when Jesus suffers and dies, He overturns the Old Covenant…The Old Testament was now made null and void having been replaced by the New Covenant”

        To me, the explanation seems to contradict the text of the Bible in Daniel 9:27.
        So my question is the following:

        How can Messiah on the one hand ‘confirm a covenant with many for one seven’ and on the other hand ‘overturn the old covenant’ and ‘make it null an void’ in the middle of the seven? He either confirms the covenant for seven years or he does not confirm it and overturns it at the midpoint of the seven years. The explanation to me seems irreconcilable with the text of Daniel 9:27. Is it not?

        • Peter, Hebrews chapter 8 answers your question about Jesus establishing the New Covenant that makes the old one void.

          Hebrews 8:13 In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.

          Jesus confirmed the NEW Covenant with Israel, NOT the OLD!!!! Jesus’ death on the cross of Calvary is the FOUNDATION of the New Covenant!

          Romans 5:6  ¶For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.
          7  For scarcely for a righteous man will one die: yet peradventure for a good man some would even dare to die.
          8  But God commendeth his love toward us, in that, while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.
          9  Much more then, being now justified by his blood, we shall be saved from wrath through him.
          10  For if, when we were enemies, we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, being reconciled, we shall be saved by his life.

          The Gospel of the New Covenant was preached primarily to the house of Israel for 7 years. After the persecution started God raised up the Apostle Paul to preach the Gospel to the Gentiles. This is plain history.

          Do I really need to keep repeating myself about Daniel 9:27? I already have tons of information about the interpretation of Daniel 9:27 on my website. You should learn the history behind your futurist interpretation that was cooked up by a Jesuit priest, Francesco Ribera, at the end of the 16th century. Ribera put the Antichrist at the very end of time in order to stop Protestants from looking at the popes of Rome as the fulfillment of the “man of sin” prophecy of 2 Thess 2:3-4. The Jesuit goal is to destroy Protestantism. Knowing the history behind Futurism and Dispensationalism should make you realize they are false doctrines. Here’s the very first article I wrote about the 70th Week of Daniel: The 70th Week of Daniel Delusion And about Dispensationalism, here’s a good article for you: The Greatest Heresy of the Endtime: Dispensationalism
          If reading those articles don’t change your mind, there’s nothing more I can say.

          • Thanks, James, for your answer.

            But the new covenant cannot be applied to first ‘half of the week’, the 3.5 years of Jesus’ ministery in your interpretation (if they indeed were 3.5 years – I think they were 2.5 years). The new covenant was established by Jesus in the night before his sufferings. The covenant was introduced by his blood, like the first covenant was dedicated by blood (Heb.9:18-22). The testament went into effect once Christ had died (Heb.9:15-17). Only then was the veil in the temple torn from top to bottom (Mt.27:51).

            Therefore the first half of ‘the week’ still belonged to the old covenant, wich was put aside at the death of Christ, as you yourself explained above. Therefore the text of Daniel 9:27 cannot be applied to the work of Jesus or to the first century AD.

            But there are many more questions one should ask while pondering about the meaning of Daniel 9:27. A second question:

            If one wants to apply Daniel 9:27 to the first century, one has to assume that verse 27 is a repetition of verse 26.

            There are indeed cases of repetition in other parts of Daniel. For instance in Daniel 7. There we see ‘the three horns felled to stumps’ three times: In Daniel 7:8, 20 and 24. We see repetition also in Daniel 8.

            But in all of these cases of repetition, it is indicated by Daniel. He is telling his dream to a heavenly messenger (first repetition) and then follows the explanation of the heavenly messenger (second repetition) and the meaning becomes clearer.

            The question one should ask about Daniel 9:27 is: Do we see an indication of any repetition in Daniel 9:26, 27? And if not, why do we still think it to be a repetition – what other reason can there be? In the text – without depending on any theological framework to which we want to uphold.

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